Analyticity of holomorphic functions

In complex analysis, a branch of mathematics, a complex-valued function ƒ of a complex variable z:

f(z)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty c_n(z-a)^n
(this implies that the radius of convergence is positive).

One of the most important theorems of complex analysis is that holomorphic functions are analytic. Among the corollaries of this theorem are

Proof

The argument, first given by Cauchy, hinges on Cauchy's integral formula and the power series development of the expression

1 \over w-z .

Suppose ƒ is differentiable everywhere within some open disk centered at a. Let z be within that open disk. Let C be a positively oriented (i.e., counterclockwise) circle centered at a, lying within that open disk but farther from a than z is. Starting with Cauchy's integral formula, we have

\begin{align}f(z) &{}= {1 \over 2\pi i}\int_C {f(w) \over w-z}\,\mathrm{d}w \\[10pt]

&{}= {1 \over 2\pi i}\int_C {1 \over w-a}\cdot{w-a \over w-z}f(w)\,\mathrm{d}w \\[10pt]
&{}= {1 \over 2\pi i}\int_C {1 \over w-a}\cdot{w-a \over (w-a)-(z-a)}f(w)\,\mathrm{d}w \\[10pt]
&{}={1 \over 2\pi i}\int_C {1 \over w-a}\cdot{1 \over 1-{z-a \over w-a}}f(w)\,\mathrm{d}w \\[10pt]
&{}={1 \over 2\pi i}\int_C {1 \over w-a}\cdot{\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left({z-a \over w-a}\right)^n} f(w)\,\mathrm{d}w \\[10pt]
&{}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty{1 \over 2\pi i}\int_C {(z-a)^n \over (w-a)^{n%2B1}} f(w)\,\mathrm{d}w.\end{align}

To justify the interchange of the sum and the integral, one must notice that in the intersection of |(z − a)/(w − a)| ≤ r < 1 and some closed domain containing C, ƒ(w)/(w − a) is holomorphic and therefore bounded by some positive number M. So we have

\left| {(z-a)^n \over (w-a)^{n%2B1} }f(w) \right| \le Mr^n.

The Weierstrass M-test says the series converges uniformly, and thus the interchange of the sum and the integral is justified.

Since the factor (z − a)n does not depend on the variable of integration w, it can be pulled out:

f(z)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (z-a)^n {1 \over 2\pi i}\int_C {f(w) \over (w-a)^{n%2B1}} \,\mathrm{d}w.

And now the integral and the factor of 1/(2πi) do not depend on z, i.e., as a function of z, that whole expression is a constant cn, so we can write:

f(z)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty c_n(z-a)^n

and that is the desired power series.

Remarks

1 \over (w-z)^{n%2B1}
gives
f^{(n)}(a) = {n! \over 2\pi i} \int_C {f(w) \over (w-a)^{n%2B1}}\, dw.
This is a Cauchy integral formula for derivatives. Therefore the power series obtained above is the Taylor series of ƒ.

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